Possible Duplicate: Prove 0! = 1 0! = 1 from first principles Why does 0! = 1 0! = 1? All I know of factorial is that x! x! is equal to the product of all the numbers that come before it. The product of 0 and …

Mar 28, 2022 · António Manuel Martins claims (@44:41 of his lecture "Fonseca on Signs") that the origin of what is now called the correspondence theory of truth, Veritas est adæquatio rei et …

What I would say is that you can multiply any non-zero number by infinity and get either infinity or negative infinity as long as it isn't used in any mathematical proof. Because multiplying by infinity is …

Oct 29, 2025 · This is Wolfram convention wich is not the same as you define por K and E. I.e K (m)=K (√k). See reference.wolfram.com/language/ref/EllipticK.html

In 1910, Srinivasa Ramanujan found several rapidly converging infinite series of $\\pi$, such as $$ \\frac{1}{\\pi} = \\frac{2\\sqrt{2}}{9801} \\sum^\\infty_{k=0 ...

Nov 23, 2025 · The main criteria is that it be asked in bad faith. ;-). I'm not entirely insincere: The question is rather how can we tell that, and a big part of the answer is "context"; it's not mainly the …

Sep 2, 2016 · And I understand that the partial derivatives gives the increase value in the directions of i and j versor respectively. But, why the gradient vector, compound of these two values gives the …

Jan 6, 2026 · In general, people don't confuse the means with the ends. Instead, what happens is that people get so wrapped up in the means that they fail to see that the means aren't accomplishing the …

Jun 2, 2022 · Ok but the result ends up being the same, $u_ {xx} + u_ {yy}$ is never becoming zero since it is $\frac {x+y-1} {\sqrt {x^2 + (y-1)^2}}$

Aug 3, 2015 · Although there isn't much difference between Z,N,I Z, N, I, they are well-known, and each one gets its own distinguished symbol. Is there any reason that primes don't get their own special …